Quote:
Originally Posted by flaja
How could the Constitution make a distinction between citizens and all other persons, in 1787 when it did not define what a citizen is until the 14th Amendment?
And if Constitutional rights applied only to citizens, why does the document have to specify that only citizens can hold federal elective office?
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Ok, follow me here, because I know you want to believe it to be something other than what it says.... The opening statement sets the precedent for the document. Everything after this statement follows. You cannot cherry pick each piece and determine it to be something it is not. It begins with an opening statement which sets the stage for the rest of the document. They did not write it to apply to the Brits who were trying to kill them. They did not write it to apply to the black African slaves. They did not write it to apply to the Chinese who came and built our Rail Roads. They did not write it to apply to the Mexicans they had war with..... no.... they wrote it for the people whom they deemed to be people who were to form a new country, a new land, under a new rule of law. Not for the King of England if he came to visit, not for anyone else. Get it?
The Constitution is for US citizens alone.
"
We the people of the United States, in order to form a more perfect union, establish justice, insure domestic tranquility, provide for the common defense, promote the general welfare, and secure the blessings of liberty to ourselves and our posterity,
do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America."
No where does it say we the people of the United States establish this Constitution for all people of the world under any conditon.
Sure... our friends in England at the time felt like this applied to them....
Give me a frigging break... the answer is NO.