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Old 03-31-2009, 10:16 PM   #1
piercehawkeye45
Franklin Pierce
 
Join Date: Oct 2006
Location: Minnesota
Posts: 3,695
Quote:
Originally Posted by sugarpop View Post
huh? How can more whites use crack, but a higher % of blacks use it? That doesn't make sense to me. Are you just saying that as a whole, the black population uses it more? How can more whites use it than blacks then? I'm confused. (this kind of math was always hard for me)
There are more white people then black people.

Lets say we have 100 white people and 10 black people.

If 20 white people use crack and 5 black people use crack, we can say that more white people use crack then black people.

But, we can also so that the percentage of blacks using crack (50%) is higher then the percentage of whites using crack (20%).
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