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Old 06-17-2008, 08:35 PM   #1
Aliantha
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If Congress can make laws that are applicable to non-U.S. citizens, how can we not grant U.S. legal due process to these non-U.S. citizens?
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Originally Posted by TheMercenary View Post
Because they are not US Citizens. Quite simple.
Do you see the double standard here Merc? If your country (any country, not just the US) makes laws concerning non citizens, then there must be some recourse for those non-citizens. It's ok to say that people must live by the law of the land etc, but if there's two sets of laws, that seems a little bit unbalanced and unstable.
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Old 06-17-2008, 08:41 PM   #2
TheMercenary
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Originally Posted by Aliantha View Post
Do you see the double standard here Merc? If your country (any country, not just the US) makes laws concerning non citizens, then there must be some recourse for those non-citizens. It's ok to say that people must live by the law of the land etc, but if there's two sets of laws, that seems a little bit unbalanced and unstable.
I just do not agree, every country in the world has two sets of laws for citizens and non-citizens. Why should the US be different. We have allowed people to take advantage of the loop holes in our society for to long. IMHO, since 9/11 all that was changed and the gloves are off, permanently. It is the price of doing business in this ever changing world. If we do not adapt to the ever increasing threats we shall perish.
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Old 06-17-2008, 09:51 PM   #3
flaja
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Originally Posted by TheMercenary View Post
I just do not agree, every country in the world has two sets of laws for citizens and non-citizens.
Your documentation for this claim is what?
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Old 06-17-2008, 09:55 PM   #4
TheMercenary
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Originally Posted by flaja View Post
Your documentation for this claim is what?
Name those that do not. A very simple search on google will yield you thousands of searches.
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